ATI Practice a Maternal Newborn 2026

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Sample questions from ATI Practice a Maternal Newborn 2026

This material has 90 questions with answers and rationales. Here are the first 5.

1. 1.A 26-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks is in the labor unit with contractions every 3 minutes. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated, and the fetal heart rate (FHR) is 140/min with moderate variability and accelerations. The membranes rupture spontaneously with clear fluid. What should the nurse do first?

   • A.Assess the FHR immediately
   • B.Obtain a maternal temperature
   • C.Prepare for an amnioinfusion
   • D.Encourage the client to begin pushing

   Rationale: The nurse should assess the FHR immediately after membrane rupture because umbilical cord prolapse can cause sudden fetal bradycardia. A temperature is useful for ongoing infection surveillance but is not the immediate priority. An amnioinfusion is not indicated with clear fluid and a reassuring tracing, and pushing is inappropriate at 6 cm. The exam takeaway is to reassess fetal status after membrane rupture.

2. 2.A 31-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks is evaluated in the obstetric triage unit for a severe headache and blurred vision. Her blood pressure is 168/112 mm Hg, urine protein is 3+, and platelets are 92,000/mm3. Which action is the priority?

   • A.Initiate seizure precautions and notify the provider
   • B.Encourage oral fluids and recheck the blood pressure in 4 hours
   • C.Place the client supine for improved placental perfusion
   • D.Prepare the client for an oral glucose tolerance test

   Rationale: Severe-range hypertension with neurologic symptoms and thrombocytopenia indicates severe preeclampsia and risk for seizure or stroke. Seizure precautions and prompt provider notification support urgent stabilization and treatment. Waiting several hours, placing the client supine, or arranging glucose testing does not address the immediate maternal threat. The exam takeaway is that severe preeclampsia requires urgent escalation, not routine observation.

3. 3.A 24-year-old G1P0 at 30 weeks is hospitalized with preterm labor. The provider prescribes magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection. The client is alert, respiratory rate is 16/min, and reflexes are 2+. Which finding requires the nurse to stop the infusion and act immediately?

   • A.Respiratory rate of 10/min and absent patellar reflexes
   • B.Warmth and flushing during the loading dose
   • C.Urine output of 40 mL/hr
   • D.Mild nausea without vomiting

   Rationale: Respiratory depression and absent reflexes are signs of magnesium toxicity and require stopping the infusion and notifying the provider; calcium gluconate may be prescribed as the antidote. Warmth and flushing are common transient effects of magnesium. A urine output of 40 mL/hr is adequate, and mild nausea alone does not indicate toxicity. The exam takeaway is to monitor respirations, reflexes, and urine output during magnesium therapy.

4. 4.A 29-year-old G3P2 at 40 weeks is receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation. The FHR is 170/min with recurrent late decelerations, and contractions occur every 1 minute and last 90 seconds. What should the nurse do first?

   • A.Stop the oxytocin infusion
   • B.Increase the oxytocin rate to shorten labor
   • C.Perform a vaginal examination before intervening
   • D.Place the client supine and reassess in 15 minutes

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.

5. 5.A 22-year-old client at 28 weeks arrives at the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. She reports abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her blood pressure is 108/66 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and the uterus is firm and tender. Which action is the priority?

   • A.Initiate continuous fetal monitoring and notify the provider
   • B.Perform a digital vaginal examination
   • C.Encourage ambulation to assess the bleeding
   • D.Apply fundal pressure to assess uterine tone

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.