ATI Mental Health on 2026 Retake Study Guide

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Sample questions from ATI Mental Health on 2026 Retake Study Guide

This material has 24 questions with answers and rationales. Here are the first 5.

1. 1.An adult admitted voluntarily for posttraumatic stress disorder becomes tense when a nurse approaches to obtain vital signs and says, "Do not touch me." Which response best demonstrates trauma-informed care and respect for the client's rights?

   • A.Explain that admission consent allows staff to perform routine assessments without additional permission.
   • B.Pause, explain the assessment, and ask whether the client would prefer to participate now or after a short break.
   • C.Ask the client to describe the traumatic event before deciding whether to delay the assessment.
   • D.Tell the client that refusing vital signs indicates a lack of commitment to recovery.

   Rationale: Pausing, explaining, and offering choices supports safety, autonomy, and collaboration. Voluntary admission does not eliminate the right to refuse routine care. Requiring disclosure of trauma is unnecessary and can increase distress. Labeling refusal as poor commitment is judgmental and undermines recovery.

2. 2.An older adult with previously stable mild dementia develops disorientation, difficulty sustaining attention, and fluctuating alertness over several hours. The client recently started an over-the-counter sleep aid containing diphenhydramine. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

   • A.Document the changes as an expected progression of dementia and continue the usual care plan.
   • B.Use repeated memory testing to determine whether the client needs long-term placement.
   • C.Assess vital signs, oxygenation, blood glucose, and medication exposure, and promptly report possible delirium.
   • D.Encourage uninterrupted sleep and postpone assessment until the next morning.

   Rationale: Acute onset, impaired attention, and fluctuating alertness suggest delirium, which requires prompt assessment for reversible causes, including anticholinergic medication effects. Dementia usually progresses gradually. Memory testing and placement planning do not address the acute change. Delaying assessment could allow an underlying medical problem to worsen.

3. 3.A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The voices say I must cut my wrists tonight. I think I might obey them." Which nursing action is the priority?

   • A.Stay with the client, assess access to means and intent, and activate immediate suicide safety measures according to policy.
   • B.Explain that the voices are not real and ask the client to promise not to act on them.
   • C.Encourage the client to attend a coping-skills group before discussing the voices further.
   • D.Provide privacy in the client's room and reassess after the prescribed antipsychotic takes effect.

   Rationale: Command hallucinations with stated willingness to act indicate immediate self-harm risk. Remaining with the client, assessing intent and means, and initiating safety measures take priority. Arguing about hallucinations is not therapeutic, and a promise does not establish safety. Group attendance delays urgent intervention. Leaving the client alone while awaiting medication effects is unsafe.

4. 4.A client taking lithium for bipolar disorder reports vomiting and diarrhea for 2 days. The nurse observes a coarse hand tremor, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait. Which action should the nurse take first?

   • A.Administer the scheduled lithium with food to reduce gastrointestinal irritation.
   • B.Encourage the client to restrict sodium until the gastrointestinal symptoms resolve.
   • C.Reassure the client that these are expected early adverse effects that usually improve.
   • D.Withhold lithium and arrange urgent medical evaluation with serum lithium, electrolyte, and renal function testing.

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.

5. 5.A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted 12 hours after the last drink. Findings include hand tremors, diaphoresis, nausea, a pulse of 118/min, and a blood pressure of 164/96 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

   • A.Administering disulfiram immediately to stop the withdrawal process.
   • B.Administering a prescribed benzodiazepine based on withdrawal assessment, with close monitoring and seizure precautions.
   • C.Giving prescribed naltrexone as the primary treatment for acute withdrawal symptoms.
   • D.Encouraging oral fluids and arranging discharge if the client denies suicidal thoughts.

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.