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HESI Path

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Sample questions from HESI Path

This material has 108 questions with answers and rationales. Here are the first 5.

  1. 1.A 68-year-old client on a medical unit has pneumonia. During reassessment, the nurse finds new confusion, BP 84/48 mm Hg, HR 124/min, RR 30/min, and oxygen saturation 88% on room air. Which action is the priority?

    • A.Obtain a sputum specimen before additional treatment.
    • B.Activate the rapid response team and initiate oxygen therapy.
    • C.Review the client's advance directive with the family.
    • D.Administer the prescribed oral antipyretic.

    Rationale: Hypotension, altered mentation, and hypoxemia suggest sepsis with impaired tissue perfusion and require immediate escalation and oxygen support. A sputum specimen is useful but must not delay stabilization. Advance-directive review and fever treatment do not address the immediate threat. Prioritize oxygenation and circulation when infection causes organ dysfunction.

  2. 2.A 74-year-old client hospitalized for heart failure is stable after diuresis, with BP 126/74 mm Hg and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Which task can the RN delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel?

    • A.Obtain and record the client's morning weight.
    • B.Evaluate whether ankle edema has improved.
    • C.Teach the client to record daily weights.
    • D.Determine whether the fluid restriction is effective.

    Rationale: Obtaining a routine weight for a stable client is a predictable task appropriate for trained assistive personnel. Evaluating edema and determining treatment effectiveness require nursing judgment. Initial teaching about weight monitoring remains the RN's responsibility. Delegate data collection, not assessment, teaching, or evaluation.

  3. 3.A 62-year-old client with atrial fibrillation is preparing for discharge after starting warfarin. The INR is 2.4, and the client reports taking several nonprescription products. Which actions should the nurse include in discharge coordination? Select all that apply.

    • A.Arrange follow-up INR testing.
    • B.Ask the pharmacist to review all supplements and nonprescription medications.
    • C.Use teach-back to verify which bleeding symptoms require urgent evaluation.
    • D.Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K-containing foods.
    • E.Advise the client to double the next dose after a missed dose.

    Rationale: Follow-up INR testing and a pharmacist's medication review support safe anticoagulation and identify interactions. Teach-back verifies that the client recognizes serious bleeding. Vitamin K intake should remain consistent rather than being eliminated. Doubling a missed dose increases bleeding risk and should not be recommended.

  4. 4.A 56-year-old client in an outpatient surgery center is scheduled for a biopsy. After receiving IV midazolam, the client states, "I still do not understand why this procedure is necessary," and the consent form is unsigned. What should the nurse do?

    • A.Proceed because the client arrived voluntarily.
    • B.Ask the client's spouse to sign the form.
    • C.Pause preparation and notify the procedural provider about the consent concern.
    • D.Explain the procedure and obtain the client's signature immediately.

    Answer and rationale are in the full material.

  5. 5.A 59-year-old client in the emergency department develops facial drooping and right arm weakness. The client's spouse reports that symptoms began 45 minutes ago. BP is 168/92 mm Hg and capillary glucose is 108 mg/dL. Which action has priority?

    • A.Lower the systolic BP to below 120 mm Hg.
    • B.Give oral aspirin with water.
    • C.Wait for the weakness to resolve before contacting the provider.
    • D.Activate the stroke protocol and expedite noncontrast head CT.

    Answer and rationale are in the full material.

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Released October 27, 2026 · Independent original practice and study material.