RN Mother ATI

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Sample questions from RN Mother ATI

This material has 90 questions with answers and rationales. Here are the first 5.

1. 1.A 28-year-old client at 34 weeks of gestation arrives at the obstetric triage unit with a severe headache and blurred vision. Blood pressure is 168/112 mm Hg, urine protein is 3+, and the fetal heart rate is 145/min. Which action should the nurse take first?

   • A.Place the client in a quiet environment and initiate seizure precautions
   • B.Encourage oral fluids and reassess the blood pressure in 2 hours
   • C.Prepare the client for an immediate nonstress test
   • D.Administer an oral antihypertensive and discharge the client if the pressure decreases

   Rationale: The findings indicate severe preeclampsia with risk for eclampsia, so seizure precautions and a low-stimulation environment are immediate safety priorities. Waiting 2 hours, as in option B, delays urgent treatment; fetal surveillance in option C is important but does not address the immediate maternal seizure risk. Option D is unsafe because severe preeclampsia requires urgent evaluation and ongoing maternal-fetal monitoring, not discharge after a single improved reading. The exam takeaway is to stabilize and protect the mother while escalating care for severe-range blood pressure.

2. 2.A 24-year-old client at 31 weeks of gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 10/min, absent patellar reflexes, and urine output of 20 mL/hr. Which action should the nurse take?

   • A.Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion and notify the provider
   • B.Increase the infusion rate because the client has low urine output
   • C.Place the client supine and reassess in 30 minutes
   • D.Administer the next scheduled dose of magnesium sulfate

   Rationale: Respiratory depression, absent reflexes, and oliguria suggest magnesium toxicity, so the infusion must be stopped and the provider notified immediately. Increasing the dose in option B or giving another dose in option D could worsen toxicity; supine positioning in option C does not treat the cause and may impair venous return. The nurse should anticipate calcium gluconate as the antidote and continue close respiratory and cardiac monitoring. The exam takeaway is to recognize magnesium toxicity early and stop the medication.

3. 3.A 19-year-old client at 10 weeks of gestation reports unilateral pelvic pain and vaginal spotting. The client is pale, has a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg, and a pulse of 122/min. Which action is the priority?

   • A.Establish large-bore IV access and prepare for emergency treatment
   • B.Obtain a routine urine specimen for prenatal screening
   • C.Provide written information about expected first-trimester spotting
   • D.Schedule an outpatient ultrasound for the following week

   Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, and unilateral pain with bleeding suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy with hemorrhagic shock, requiring immediate stabilization. Routine screening in option B and education in option C delay emergency care; an outpatient ultrasound in option D is unsafe given the unstable vital signs. The nurse should summon emergency assistance, establish IV access, and prepare for urgent evaluation and possible surgery. The exam takeaway is to treat hemodynamic instability in early pregnancy as a life-threatening emergency.

4. 4.A 30-year-old client at 35 weeks of gestation reports a sudden painless gush of bright red vaginal blood. The uterus is soft and nontender, and the fetal heart rate is 140/min. Which action should the nurse take?

   • A.Avoid a vaginal examination and notify the provider
   • B.Perform a digital cervical examination to assess dilation
   • C.Encourage the client to walk to determine whether bleeding increases
   • D.Apply fundal pressure to identify the source of bleeding

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.

5. 5.A 27-year-old client at 33 weeks of gestation reports constant abdominal pain and dark vaginal bleeding after a minor fall. The uterus is firm and tender, and the fetal heart rate is 170/min. Which action should the nurse take first?

   • A.Initiate continuous fetal monitoring and notify the provider
   • B.Perform a digital cervical examination
   • C.Massage the fundus until it softens
   • D.Reassure the client that dark blood is not concerning

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.