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ATI Maternal Cms Exam
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ATI Maternal Cms Exam
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This material has 90 questions with answers and rationales. Here are the first 5.
1.During a labor-unit emergency involving a 29-year-old client, the charge nurse coordinates the response. Refer to the client's chart. Which actions should the nurse initiate? Select all that apply.
- A.Delay additional interventions until the repeat hemoglobin result is available.
- B.Prepare to administer prescribed oxytocin.
- C.Massage the uterine fundus.
- D.Activate the obstetric hemorrhage response.
- E.Assist the client to walk to the bathroom.
Rationale: The increase in quantified blood loss to 1,100 mL, boggy uterus, HR 124/min, and BP 86/48 mm Hg indicate postpartum hemorrhage with circulatory compromise, requiring immediate team activation. Fundal massage and prescribed oxytocin address uterine atony. Walking is unsafe with hypotension, and waiting for hemoglobin delays lifesaving treatment because acute blood loss may not immediately lower the measured concentration. Prioritize the clinical presentation over a pending laboratory result.
2.At change of shift on a postpartum unit, an RN works with an experienced assistive personnel member. A 26-year-old client is 18 hours after an uncomplicated vaginal birth, with BP 112/70 mm Hg and scant lochia. Which task should the RN delegate?
- A.Obtain and record the client's routine vital signs.
- B.Assess uterine tone before ambulation.
- C.Evaluate the client's latch during breastfeeding.
- D.Teach the client how to perform perineal care.
Rationale: Obtaining routine vital signs for a stable client is an appropriate task for trained assistive personnel. Evaluating latch and assessing uterine tone require nursing judgment. Initial perineal-care teaching also remains the RN's responsibility. Delegation transfers a task, not accountability for interpreting findings.
3.Before a scheduled cesarean birth, a 34-year-old client in the preoperative area says, 'I signed the consent, but I still do not understand why surgery is necessary.' Maternal vital signs and the fetal heart rate are reassuring. What should the nurse do first?
- A.Administer the prescribed sedative to reduce anxiety.
- B.Ask the client's partner to confirm agreement with surgery.
- C.Notify the surgeon that the client needs further explanation before proceeding.
- D.Explain all surgical risks and ask the client to sign again.
Rationale: The surgeon must clarify the indication, alternatives, and risks when the client expresses a lack of understanding. The nurse advocates for informed consent but does not replace the proceduralist's explanation. Sedation can impair decision-making, and a partner cannot provide consent for a capable adult. A signature alone does not establish informed consent.
4.Four clients call the antepartum triage nurse simultaneously. Which client should receive the first in-person assessment?
- A.A 28-year-old at 39 weeks with contractions every 8 minutes and normal fetal movement
- B.A 31-year-old at 34 weeks with a severe headache and BP 164/112 mm Hg
- C.A 36-year-old at 28 weeks with heartburn after eating and BP 118/72 mm Hg
- D.A 19-year-old at 10 weeks with morning nausea and urine output of 50 mL/hr
Answer and rationale are in the full material.
5.While reviewing an oxytocin infusion for a 24-year-old laboring client, the RN identifies a change requiring action. Refer to the client's chart. Which action takes priority?
- A.Increase oxytocin to shorten the second stage of labor.
- B.Perform a routine cervical examination before changing treatment.
- C.Administer oxygen by face mask as the only intervention.
- D.Stop the oxytocin infusion.
Answer and rationale are in the full material.
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Released October 30, 2026 · Independent original practice and study material.