Sexuality, Fertility and Sexually Transmitted Infections on Maternal and Newborn

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Sample questions from Sexuality, Fertility and Sexually Transmitted Infections on Maternal and Newborn

This material has 90 questions with answers and rationales. Here are the first 5.

1. 1.At an obstetric clinic, a 26-year-old at 10 weeks' gestation reports that her partner was treated for chlamydia last week. She has no dysuria or discharge; temperature is 36.8 C and pulse is 82/min. Which action should the nurse anticipate?

   • A.Wait until the third trimester to test for chlamydia
   • B.Recommend that only her partner receive treatment
   • C.Obtain a nucleic acid amplification test and arrange treatment if indicated
   • D.Reassure her that treatment is unnecessary without symptoms

   Rationale: Chlamydia is often asymptomatic, so testing with a nucleic acid amplification test is appropriate after exposure; a positive result in pregnancy requires prompt treatment. Absence of symptoms does not exclude infection, and waiting risks maternal and newborn complications. Treating only the partner permits reinfection; partners need evaluation and treatment as indicated.

2. 2.During a labor admission, a 31-year-old at 39 weeks has a documented positive group B streptococcus culture and no penicillin allergy. Temperature is 37.1 C, and membranes have just ruptured. Which action is the priority?

   • A.Give the newborn oral antibiotics after birth
   • B.Arrange a repeat culture before giving medication
   • C.Delay antibiotics until the client develops a fever
   • D.Begin intrapartum intravenous penicillin as prescribed

   Rationale: Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for a client with a positive group B streptococcus screen reduces early-onset neonatal infection. Oral medication for the newborn is not the indicated preventive approach, and fever is not required before prophylaxis. A repeat culture at labor does not replace the documented positive result.

3. 3.A 35-year-old client at a fertility clinic is beginning an ovulation-induction cycle. The client reports severe one-sided pelvic pain and nausea after taking gonadotropins; pulse is 110/min and blood pressure is 96/60 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

   • A.Notify the fertility provider immediately and arrange urgent evaluation
   • B.Advise the client to take the next dose with food
   • C.Schedule a routine ultrasound in 1 week
   • D.Explain that mild discomfort is expected during treatment

   Rationale: Severe unilateral pain with tachycardia and low blood pressure after ovarian stimulation can indicate ovarian torsion or a serious complication and needs urgent assessment. Taking another dose or waiting for a routine scan could delay treatment. Mild transient discomfort may occur, but these cues are not reassuring.

4. 4.Refer to the client's chart. Which actions should the nurse take now for this client? Select all that apply.

   • A.Apply a topical antibiotic and consider the infection cured when the ulcer closes
   • B.Notify the public health department according to reporting requirements
   • C.Arrange evaluation and treatment for sexual partners
   • D.Teach the client to abstain from sexual contact until treatment is complete and lesions have healed
   • E.Administer the prescribed intramuscular benzathine penicillin G

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.

5. 5.In a postpartum clinic, a 29-year-old who is breastfeeding asks when she can resume sexual activity after an uncomplicated vaginal birth 2 weeks ago. Lochia is scant, and she denies pain or fever. Which response is best?

   • A.Wait until your first menstrual period because pregnancy cannot occur before then
   • B.Resume when you feel ready and comfortable; use contraception because ovulation can occur before the first period
   • C.Resume intercourse now without contraception because breastfeeding suppresses ovulation
   • D.Breastfeeding prevents pregnancy as long as you have not menstruated

   Answer and rationale are in the full material.